Let \(\displaystyle (a_n)^\infty_{n=1}\) converges to \(\displaystyle a\).
Is the next sequence \(\displaystyle b_n\) also converges?
\(\displaystyle b_n=\frac{a_1^2+a_2^2+\dots +a_n^2}{n}\)
Thanks!
Is the next sequence \(\displaystyle b_n\) also converges?
\(\displaystyle b_n=\frac{a_1^2+a_2^2+\dots +a_n^2}{n}\)
Thanks!