R regine Jul 2016 4 0 Norway May 7, 2017 #1 When performing a test to see whether an estimator A for two populations is the same, is it more natural to use the difference A1 – A2 = 0 or the ratio A1 / A2 = 1 (or other)? Is there a universal preference or is it situational?

When performing a test to see whether an estimator A for two populations is the same, is it more natural to use the difference A1 – A2 = 0 or the ratio A1 / A2 = 1 (or other)? Is there a universal preference or is it situational?

romsek MHF Helper Nov 2013 6,666 3,005 California May 7, 2017 #2 comparing means I'd use the expected value of the difference. comparing standard deviations (or higher moments) I'd use the expected value of the ratio.

comparing means I'd use the expected value of the difference. comparing standard deviations (or higher moments) I'd use the expected value of the ratio.

R regine Jul 2016 4 0 Norway May 28, 2017 #3 So would the logic "use difference for expectancy to account for potential expectancy = 0; use ratio everywhere else because it's generally easier." Be correct?

So would the logic "use difference for expectancy to account for potential expectancy = 0; use ratio everywhere else because it's generally easier." Be correct?