Hi! I want to ask if is \(\displaystyle R^2\) is Lebesgue-measurable?
If yes why?
This is true also for R, R^3 and so on?
Are they Peano-Jordan measurable?
I thought they were because their complementar is empty. Sorry for my english. Thank you.
If yes why?
This is true also for R, R^3 and so on?
Are they Peano-Jordan measurable?
I thought they were because their complementar is empty. Sorry for my english. Thank you.