What do u mean? The exercise wants me to prove that this series converges... (It's n factorial. There is no m)
sum n!*ln^n(1+2/n) Sent from my Redmi Note 4X using Tapatalk
to domy7997, you have very poor penmanship. Those are clearly
m's in the image you posted.
It may serve better if you used some devise other than a mobile phone.
Also be reminded that this is an English language website.
Now just to be sure that the series is: \(\displaystyle \sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {n!{{\left[ {\log \left( {1 + \frac{2}{n}} \right)} \right]}^n}} \)
If that is correct then the ratio test is a better way to prove convergence.