so if we have cot 0/tan0 +1 what do we end up with,

i know that cot = 1/tan so i get 1/tan / tan +1which ends up as 1/ tan ^2 + 1 but where do i go from there???

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- Aug 19th 2009, 07:53 PM #1

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- Aug 19th 2009, 08:42 PM #2

- Aug 19th 2009, 08:55 PM #3

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Please learn to write clearly. Do NOT write things that you KNOW to be incorrect and expect everyone to figure out what you mean.

1) Why on Earth would you choose a zero (0) te represent $\displaystyle \theta$? Never do that.

2) Remember your Order of Operations. 8 / 3 + 2 is NOT the same as 8 / (3+2).

You have $\displaystyle \frac{\cot(\theta)}{tan(\theta)+1}$. It is a small matter to use parenthese and some substitution to clarify meaning. Notice that it doesnt matter if we use theta. cot(a) / (tan(a) + 1).

Finally, remember this: $\displaystyle \cos^{2}(x) + \sin^{2}(x) = 1$? What happens if you divide that familiar identity by $\displaystyle \cos^{2}(x)$

- Aug 19th 2009, 10:01 PM #4

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You are of course correct, I should not expect you to understand my notes, let me clear up the question, I need the value of

$\displaystyle \frac{\cot (a)}{\tan (a)} + 1 = $

I believe this is equal to an integer, 1 or maybe 0.

Thanks for you patience.

Netbook

- Aug 20th 2009, 12:27 AM #5