Hey
Prove: cos(x)/ 1-tan(x) + sin(x)/ 1-cot(x) = sin(x) + cos(x)
i subbed 1-tan(x)= sin(x)/cos(x)
and cot(x) = cos(x)/sin(x)
so i divided it and times it all out
and i get to this stage
1/ 2cos(x)sin(x)-cos^2(x)-sin^2(x) and didnt knwo what to do
Thanks
yerh i did that.
Let me just show you my whole working out. sorry its not in latex, dont know how to use it
So,
cos(x)/(1- sin(x)/cos(x)) + sin(x)/(1-cos(x)/sin(x))
= cos(x)/(cos(x)-sin(x)/cos(x)) + sin(x)/(sin(x)-cos(x)/sin(x))
= cos(x) * cos(x)/(cos(x)-sin(x)) + sin(x) * (sin(x)/(sin(x)-cos(x))
= cos^2(x) + sin^2(x)/ (cos(x)-sin(x)*(sin(x)/(sin(x)-cos(x))
which equals
1/ (2cos(x)sin(x)-cos^2(x)-sin^2(x))
help please
Hi smmmc
What's this ??
It's good till this part. Then, you can manipulate it like this :cos(x) * cos(x)/(cos(x)-sin(x)) + sin(x) * (sin(x)/(sin(x)-cos(x))
And a little suggestion from me : How about learning latex ? http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...-tutorial.html