Here is a nasty trig induction question i dont even pretend to know how to begin. I think it is a little out of the scope of my course, but would like to try it, just in case.

thanks jacs

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- August 28th 2006, 03:45 AMjacsnasty trig induction
Here is a nasty trig induction question i dont even pretend to know how to begin. I think it is a little out of the scope of my course, but would like to try it, just in case.

thanks jacs - August 28th 2006, 01:53 PMgalactus
Add to both sides

That would be next in your series.

Now, your mission is to show that

It does, but can you show how?. - August 28th 2006, 03:32 PMjacs
I am afraid i have no idea how to proceed at all. This question i think is a little beyond what were are supposed to be able to do at our course level. It was presented as a challenge question, but even with your start, i don't know how to proceed.

jacs - August 28th 2006, 04:57 PMThePerfectHacker
For

The left hand side is,

The right hand side is,

No wonder you cannot prove it! - August 28th 2006, 06:14 PMgalactusQuote:

Originally Posted by**ThePerfectHacker**

Left side:

It equals**0.463647609001**

The right side:

It is true for n=1 - August 28th 2006, 06:25 PMThePerfectHackerQuote:

Originally Posted by**galactus**

Remember mathematicians do not accept numerical, graphical, logical, obvious results ;) - August 28th 2006, 08:30 PMCaptainBlackQuote:

Originally Posted by**ThePerfectHacker**

which follows immediately from taking tan of both sides and the trig identity

for the tan of a difference of two angles.

RonL - August 29th 2006, 05:29 AMgalactus
Yes, Cap'N. That method proves the general result, also.

Skipping ahead a lot of algebra: