Hey can I get some help with this .
If: A = 1+sin(x) / cos (x) then prove 1/A = 1-sin(x) / cos (x).
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You didn't think to invert both fractions?
Wouldn't an inversion of A give cos (x) / 1 + sin (x) which =/= 1-sin(x) / cos(x)
That's just the first step. Now try multiplying top and bottom by the bottom's conjugate.
Ahhhhhhh. Thanks very much, I understand the concept now!
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