When cos(x) + sin(x) = 0 I can see how cos(x) cannot equal 0. But when written as cos(x)[1 + tan(x)] = 0 cos(x) can be 0? Could someone please try to explain this to me
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Originally Posted by kinhew93 When cos(x) + sin(x) = 0 I can see how cos(x) cannot equal 0. But when written as cos(x)[1 + tan(x)] = 0 cos(x) can be 0? Could someone please try to explain this to me If then , and the product of is undefined. So no: if , then .
Last edited by ebaines; January 9th 2013 at 09:25 AM.
Hello, kinhew93! We have: . . . . . . . . . . . . You are right: . . . . . . . . Therefore: n .
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