Does
yes. $\displaystyle \mbox{Since\;\;} \dfrac{\frac{a}{b}}{\frac{c}{d}}= \dfrac{a}{b}\times\dfrac{d}{c}$
you have:
$\displaystyle \dfrac{\frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}}{\frac{\cos(x)}{1}} = \dfrac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}\;\dfrac{1}{\cos(x)}=\dfra c{\sin(x)}{\cos^2(x)}$
Thanks harish.. I'm terrible at this stuff. I am brilliant with numbers, but I don't understand this trigonometry stuff. I've been thrown into advanced math in grade 11 after making a 94 in math 10.. Now I'm near failure because I have a hard time understanding all the processes in this stuff.