I am having the HARDEST TIME simplifying this into cos y
(1+cos y)/(1+sec y)
When I do it, I always end up with cos^2 y..
Thanks guys, appreciate it.
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I am having the HARDEST TIME simplifying this into cos y
(1+cos y)/(1+sec y)
When I do it, I always end up with cos^2 y..
Thanks guys, appreciate it.
I understand that... but how would it cancel out
(1+cos y)/(1+1/cos y)
I understand the 1's would/could cancel, but then you still have:
cos y/(1/cos y)
And the only way I can imagine you would get rid of the denom is multiply the cos y uptop.
I'm clearly doing something wrong, and this is the only problem i've had any issues with thus far.
Is there an explanation for why you multiply top and bottom by cos y?
That would be very useful knowledge for my test tomorrow.
:)
Better yet, why don't you multiple up the 1 + 1/cos also because it's part of the denominator too?