Show that ifin an acute triangle then the area of the triangle is greater than 1 (
). (I'm not sure if this involves trigonometry at all.)
(I know thatbecause
).
Sorry for not noticing sooner but your solution appears to be incorrect. By Heron's formula:
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which implies
which is obviously false (for a general
).
I'm eagerly waiting for a good solution. (The upper was so simple to get I assume the lower should come just as easy but I can't see) Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.