Hi everyone,

I often saw in books :

"Sin(x)<x<Tan(x) thus Cos(x)<Sin(x)/x<1 for (0, π/2)".

So I was wondering how can I show that:

Sin(x)<x<Tan(x) => Cos(x)<Sin(x)/x<1 for (0, π/2)

I tired a few things but it's not very convincing.

Thanks for your up coming answers