tan(x) * cot(x) = 1 if both are defined - which they are.
Since tan(x) and cot(x) ALWAYS have the same sign.
Where does that leave us?
Hello, I am preparing for the ACT and stumbled upon a question that I don't understand.
It says, "If tan x and cot x are defined, what is the value of (tan2x)(cot2x)?" (the 2 representing a square)
The possible choices are:
c) sin2 x -1 / cos2 x
d) tan2x + sec2x
e) (sec2x + 1)(csc2x + 1)
Of course, I don't need the answer; I need an explanation. Any help is appreciated!
Thank you for your reply! So the answer is 1.
I've been out of high school for 4 years, and I failed trig, out of laziness sadly. I barely understand trig.
1) I have no idea why 1 is the defined. Is it a math standard to use 1 when they are specified as defined?
2) What do you mean when you refer to "sign"?
Cotangent is just the inverse of tangent, so it isn't defined when sine is equal to zero.
2) He means positive or negative. When tangent is positive, cotangent is also positive and vice-versa.