According to a June 2004 Gallup poll, 28% of Americans “said there have been times in the last year when they haven’t been able to afford medical care.” Is this proportion higher for black Americans than for all Americans? In a random sample of 801 black Americans, 34% reported that there had been times in the last year when they had not been able to afford medical care.

Test an appropriate hypothesis and state your conclusion. (Make sure to check any necessary conditions and to state a conclusion in the context of the problem.)

H0: _____p=.28______ HA: ___p>.28__________

Sample proportion: _____801________

Standard deviation SD(p0): _________.01586______

Is your test one-tail right (upper) tail, one-tail left (lower) tail, or two-tail?

______uppertail________

P-value:

__normalCDF(3.783, 10^9, 0, 1) = .0000775 (not sure at all)

Explain what your P-value means in this context.

That it is unlikely to observe a poll of 28% Americans to claim they couldn't afford insurance

Conclusion:

We are to reject the null hypothesis since the p-value is so low, and that the proportion for black americans is higher than for all americans

?? im really not sure about these answers because of my p-value it seems so funky...