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- Mar 23rd 2009, 05:09 AM #1

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## At least 1.

Hello

I'm trying to understand an example given in a book I have. The book is The Theory of Gambling and Statistical Logic, R Epstein, page 16.

"The probability of drawing at least one king in two tries from a deck of 52 cards is 396/(52*51) = 0.149 ."

I know I can solve this question by finding the probability of no king and subtracting from one.

1 - (48/52 * 47/51) = 0.149

In the first example I don't understand where 396 comes from. If I was working from the beginning , how would I get to 396?

phil

- Mar 23rd 2009, 05:15 AM #2

- Mar 23rd 2009, 05:50 AM #3

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