Hello there, I have met another small problem that I need some help
Suppose you have an 40-card deck. 3 of the cards are marked. You draw 6 cards. What are the chances of having 1 of these marked cards in your 6-card hand?
It seems so easy but I am stuck here for hours please help me!
Thanks so much
Ok this gives around 34%.
I'd think something like that: 3/40*39/39*38/38*37/37*36/36*35/35 which gives around 7.5% which I think it's wrong Can the solution be written in somewhat this way? (and generally how is this way called so I can read it somewhere?)