0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
Hi, Am i right in thinking that the above array on integers (50/50) is no more likely to occur then the below (0/100)
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Where 1 and 0 are both equally likely to appear, for example flipping a coin; Tails = 0 and Heads = 1