Originally Posted by

**ThodorisK** For fair coin tosses, in an INFINITE sequence of tosses the average length of consecutive wins (or losses) is 1/(1-p)=2, right?

Now imagine the distribution that: At the axis of x we see all possible streak lengths (which we meet in an infinite sequence of tosses), and at the axis of y we see the number of occurences of a particular streak length divided by the total number of occurences of all streak lengths (in an infinite sequence of tosses). So the axis of y counts percentages.

So since the average streak length is 2, I guess the highest percentage, is that of the "streak length 2", and all other streak lengths have a lower percentage. That is, in a future infinite sequence of tosses, we will meet the "streak length 2", more times than any other streak length.

The question is, where can I find the formula that gives the values for this distribution?