Originally Posted by

**Soop** You lost me here: "That assumes every outcome has an equal probability if occurring. If the blueberries are randomly distributed among the pancakes, then the outcomes are not equally likely."

Why are the outcomes no longer equally likely if the blueberries are randomly distributed? According to the Wolfram equation, the probability of at least 2 blueberries on each pancake is less than 60%. That doesn't sound right to me.

Is the complement of the first solution you presented not correct?