Hi,
Could someone please help me with this question, I am not sure how to approach it.
I thought I could use two equations and solve them simultaneously but I am confused on what information to use.
Thanks
you have two integral conditions
$\displaystyle \int_0^B~f(y)~dy = 1$
$E[Y] = \displaystyle \int_0^B~yf(y)~dy = 2$
substituting in $f(y)$ we get
$\displaystyle \int_0^B~A y~dy = 1$
$E[Y]=\displaystyle \int_0^B~Ay^2~dy = 2$
I'm sure you can take it from here.