. In the XVII century Lord de Mere, a vivid gambler, asked Pascal, one of the great mathematicians of his time: If a player rolls a die 4 times what should I bet on: a) he rolls at least one 6; or b) he does not roll a 6 at all? What would you bet on?
so for this question I would say a. because it would a 4 in 6 chance or a 0.667 chance
anybody have another way of showing this because I think i might me wrong
Hello, mr.toronto!
Your reasoning is incorrect . . .If a player rolls a die 4 times, what should I bet on:
a) he rolls at least one 6, or
b) he does not roll a 6 at all?
What would you bet on?
One any roll,
b) The probability that he rolls no 6's is: .
a) Hence: .
Work from the case where no sixs are rolled.Originally Posted by mr.toronto
. In the XVII century Lord de Mere, a vivid gambler, asked Pascal, one of the great mathematicians of his time: If a player rolls a die 4 times what should I bet on: a) he rolls at least one 6; or b) he does not roll a 6 at all? What would you bet on?
so for this question I would say a. because it would a 4 in 6 chance or a 0.667 chance
anybody have another way of showing this because I think i might me wrong
Probability of not rolling a six on a single roll is 5/6
Probability of this occuring on all four rolls (5/6)^4 ~= 0.4823
Probability of rolling at least one six = 1- prob of rolling no sixes = 1-(5/6)^4 ~= 0.5177
RonL
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