Hey downthesun01.

I think what its asking you to do is use the inequality (where k = 2) and to compare with (and state) the exact probability that you have figured out.

The bound is 1/k^2 which is 1/4 which represents a theoretical upper bound given Chebyshevs Inequality however the true value (i.e. exact) is a lot smaller (i.e. 0) and still remains in the bound (since 0 < 1/4).