I get this in minitab:
Pearson correlation of Gender and Political Affiliation = -0.112
P-Value = 0.266
What does this exactly mean?
He is asking what it means not what the implications of it value are (btw 0.266 may be small enough, it is up to the decision of the researcher)
I believe the p value for linear regression is: if you decide that Political view is linearly dependent on gender then the p value is the chance that they actually aren't linearly dependant. 0.266 is normally considered a large chance of incorrectly assuming a linear relationship so you would need to do more sampling.
A linear regression isn't really suitable here because gender only takes two values, 0 and 1.