A two-variable regression with no intercept is given as: Show that the R-squared ( ) for this model is equal to zero. I think I should show that the covariance of X and Y are zero?
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Hey wopashui. There are quite a few formulas for R^2 and covariance would indeed be one way to show this.
Originally Posted by chiro Hey wopashui. There are quite a few formulas for R^2 and covariance would indeed be one way to show this. I can't end up getting zero by using the covariance, can you show me some steps of approaching this?
What information do you have about the model and its constraints?
Econ 4706?
No I mean the actual course material you are covering (specific topics, concepts, stuff like that). I have no idea what that course is.
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