This might be simple but for some reason I can not stop pondering this question....
Is the probability of rolling 6 dice and getting exactly one 1 equal to the probability of rolling 12 dice and getting exactly two 1s? Please explain thanks.
How would this change with say 6 six sided dice vs 6 twelve sided dice? In the 6 12 sided dice scenario I would have a 1/6th chance to roll a one or a two right. Therefore the probability would be the same of rolling exactly one 1 or 2?