1. ## Are probabilities static

First let me apologize for my ignorance, what i mean is i am not even sure if i am wording the question properly and my math is, um.. ..average at best.
Second let me apologize for repeating a thread, or placing it in the wrong place, there are so many.
Lastly let me apologize for any social or grammatical errors not covered in the first 2 apologies.

Ok, I wanted to know if probabilities can increase or decrease over time. Assuming i am using an honest 4 sided dice. If i roll it once and it results in a 1, will rolling the same dice again with no environmental changes result in the same probability of yielding a 1. And then if i roll it again, and so-on and so-on, will the probability of rolling a 1 stay the same every time.

2. ## Re: Are probabilities static

What is a four sided die?
I have seen that three times lately.
But I have no idea what it means.

3. ## Re: Are probabilities static

It is shaped like a pyramid, i use it in Dungeons and Dragons.

The discussion i was in started with a 4 sided die, but i would have used it in my question regardless because the beginning math was easy for me, you know 25% and whatnot.

4. ## Re: Are probabilities static

Originally Posted by really
It is shaped like a pyramid, i use it in Dungeons and Dragons.
Are they are numbered $\{1,2,3,4\}~?$

Yes sir.

6. ## Re: Are probabilities static

Originally Posted by really
Yes sir.
Thank you for the information. I will use it next time.
I know of no studies to indicate that any dice change over time.

7. ## Re: Are probabilities static

I did a little research off site and I am a little confused. My initial research lead me to something called Gambler's Fallacy. Which stated that the idea that a given result is "due" based on the previous results of an event is not true, because the results are independent of one another.

Then I googled independent probabilities and found that if multiple events occur at the same time the probability of a singular result drops.

In the example above if i rolled two 4 sided dice at the same time the probability of the same number appearing on each dice diminishes. Why wouldn't it be 25%, and if it does work that way, why wouldn't gamblers fallacy be gamblers rule?

I'm sorry if I am wasting your time, I am just trying to better understand what is going on with the math.