For me the answer is 1/3
HH HT TH TT have equal chance in general.
One of the coins is head, this means that only
HH HT TH
are possible, all with equal chance.
-> 1/3
Suppose I flip two coins without letting you see the outcome, and I tell you that at least one of the coins came up heads. What is the probability that the other coin is also heads?
Through cond prob. I think the answer is 1/4, but others are saying its 1/3. There are 4 possible combinations, and knowing that at least one coin turned up heads doesnt change the probability of getting HH in flipping 2 coins.
we cant just eliminate TT from the equation bc before you flipped the coins, TT has 1/4 chance of turning up.
But if you said right from the start that the coins are somehow biased that at least 1 coin will always turned up heads, then i would agree that the probability of getting HH is 1/3.
otherwise if getting HH, HT, TH or TT have equal chances, then it should be 1/4.
Thoughts?
Another way of looking at this problem: I have a bag with 1 red, 1 blue, 1 green and 1 black marble. I pull a marble out. At this point the probability are:
Which makes sense. I have 100% chance of having 1 marble if I pull 1 marble.
Now I look at it and tell you its NOT black. The chances are now
Again i have 100% of having at least 1 marble in my hand.
If I tried to insist the probabilites remained .25 for the colors I'd have this:
Which is saying after pulling 1 marble out of the bag, looking at it and saying its not black. There is now a 75% chance of me having a marble in my hand. Which is obviously absurd I definitely have a marble in my hand.
Now you can equate this:
red = HH
green = HT
blue = TH
black = TT.
Now telling you that at least one coin is Heads is the same as saying its not black. So the odds of double heads coming up (red) is 1/3.