Suppose X ~ N(0,1).
Why can we write P(a≤ X ≤ b) = P(X ≤ b) – P(X ≤ a)
June 23rd 2011, 11:59 AM
Plato
Re: Normal Distribution
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kanwar245
Suppose X ~ N(0,1).
Why can we write P(a≤ X ≤ b) = P(X ≤ b) – P(X ≤ a)
To really answer your question, we need to know how much you understand about continuous distributions.
For example do you understand that for any a,
From that it follows at once that
So .