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**ragnar** Whoa, whoa, whoa, rolling a (1, 1) is not equally likely as rolling (1, 2)? I assume here that this means rolling a 1, then a 1. Two independent events on a fair six-sided die? Or is the die not fair? If not, I don't see how this illustrates the point.

Also, I guess I should be satisfied with my main question, since I see how you can use order in the case of cards, it's just more complicated computations. But it makes me wonder:

I can ignore order with cards if I want to. Why can I not do the same with flipping two coins? I'm just not seeing why it is that you can treat one in one way and not treat the other in the same way.