I would consider this basic statistics, i think, though i still need a bit of help with it as a confirmation.
The national lottery in england is: 6 numbers out of 49. simple. I filled in 2 lines of different numbers. i.e. 12 DIFFERENT numbers. the day of the lottery the 6 winning numbers were NONE of what i chose. I was so annoyed I started calculating the odds of:
out of a total of 49 numbers, pick any 12. what is the chance that would not have got ANY of the 6 chosen randomly?
I make this:
which to my horror turns out to be about 16%. So i should not be surprised there are no prises for not getting ANY numbers on the lottery! :o)
can some1 please confirm my thoughts and calculations are indeed correct??