Let the pmf of X be defined by f(x)=6/((pi^2)(x^2)), x=1,2,3.... show that E(X) does not exist (Can you show that f(x) is a p.mf.?) And I know that x^-2 converges to Pi^2/6 ..
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Originally Posted by calculuskid1 Let the pmf of X be defined by f(x)=6/((pi^2)(x^2)), x=1,2,3.... show that E(X) does not exist (Can you show that f(x) is a p.mf.?) And I know that x^-2 converges to Pi^2/6 .. $\displaystyle \displaystyle E(X) = \sum_{x = 1}^{+\infty} x f(x)$. Does this series converge ....?
Originally Posted by calculuskid1 Let the pmf of X be defined by f(x)=6/((pi^2)(x^2)), x=1,2,3.... show that E(X) does not exist (Can you show that f(x) is a p.mf.?) And I know that x^-2 converges to Pi^2/6 .. I assume you mean the sum converges to $\displaystyle \pi^2/6$
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