Originally Posted by

**axa121** Oh maybe I was interpreting it in a different way, as I was thinking that the B itself has a probability of 0.65.

It's been a while since I've done stats, and the way I was reading it, I thought you would n't use the P(B|A) formula.

I've used that now and got the value for P(B n A) as 0.065

Is it correct? Mr F says: Is 0.065 the number in the cell of the Karnaugh table coresponding to $\displaystyle \Pr(A \cap B)$?

edit: I've also put the actual wording of the question up now.