If A and B r independent and

p(AB'UA'B)

given p(A)=p(B)= 0.5

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- Apr 11th 2010, 07:19 PMamul28a bit confusing
If A and B r independent and

p(AB'UA'B)

given p(A)=p(B)= 0.5 - Apr 11th 2010, 08:13 PMFailure
I'm a bit uncertain about your notation, but maybe you want to consider something like

$\displaystyle P((A\cap \overline{B})\cup (\overline{A}\cap B))=P(A\cap \overline{B})+P(\overline{A}\cap B)-P((A\cap\overline{B})\cap(\overline{A}\cap B))=\ldots$

where $\displaystyle P((A\cap\overline{B})\cap(\overline{A}\cap B))=0$, of course. Since A and B are independent, you can easily calculate the remaning probabilities from the probabilities of A and B, respectively. - Apr 13th 2010, 06:28 PMamul28
thank u ...got it