Originally Posted by

**skeske1234** Hi, I need some clarification on this question:

If two sets of data have the same mean, can one of them have a larger standard deviation and a smaller interquartile range than the other? Give an example or explain why one is not possible.

I have been thinking about this question for quite some time, and I think that the answer is that it really depends on your set of data. I did some tests with sample data sets that I made up randomly, and they all had different results regarding the question above.. Can someone just prove to me if I am wrong or right, or the correct answer to the question. Thanks for your help in advance :)