• Sep 19th 2009, 04:32 PM
skeske1234
Hi, I need some clarification on this question:

If two sets of data have the same mean, can one of them have a larger standard deviation and a smaller interquartile range than the other? Give an example or explain why one is not possible.

I have been thinking about this question for quite some time, and I think that the answer is that it really depends on your set of data. I did some tests with sample data sets that I made up randomly, and they all had different results regarding the question above.. Can someone just prove to me if I am wrong or right, or the correct answer to the question. Thanks for your help in advance :)
• Sep 19th 2009, 11:43 PM
CaptainBlack
Quote:

Originally Posted by skeske1234
Hi, I need some clarification on this question:

If two sets of data have the same mean, can one of them have a larger standard deviation and a smaller interquartile range than the other? Give an example or explain why one is not possible.

I have been thinking about this question for quite some time, and I think that the answer is that it really depends on your set of data. I did some tests with sample data sets that I made up randomly, and they all had different results regarding the question above.. Can someone just prove to me if I am wrong or right, or the correct answer to the question. Thanks for your help in advance :)

If you found an example where one had the larger interquartile range and the other the larger SD you have an example that shows it is possible and that is sufficient evidence to answer the question.

CB