I'm in a debate with my math teacher over this, and she just doesn't understand what I'm asking. It's actually a pretty simple question. Is there a rule, law, or algebraic solution that states:
if then
I was marked incorrectly on an assignment for refusing to make that assumption, and I refused to make that assumption because I was not able to find such a rule anywhere online or in the textbook. I don't mind being wrong if I actually am incorrect, I just want proof. Thanks in advance.
I assumed there was an answer somewhere. It just frustrates me to no end that instead of being taught (or even told), we were just expected to assume. I guess I'll just have to accept the lost marks, though I believe the fault still lies elsewhere... Thanks for your reply, at least now I know.
In fact, the definition of "inverse" function is that g is the inverse function to f if and only if f(g(x))= x and g(f(x))= x, and swapping "f" and "g" the first equation becomes g(f(x))= x, and the second equation becomes g(f(x))= x so the f is also the inverse of g.