∞ ∑ (-1)^n n / √(n³ + 2) n=1
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Originally Posted by fardeen_gen ∞ ∑ (-1)^n n / √(n³ + 2) n=1 By Leibnitz's Criterion this converges because if we define then and
Hello, fardeen_gen! Test for convergence: . The absolute value of the term is: . . Then: . We have an alternating series whose term goes to 0. . . Therefore, the series converges.
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