State whether the function f has an inverse. If f^-1 exsists, find a rule for f^-1(x) and show that f(f^-(x))= f^-1(f(x))=x 1. f(x)= 1/x thank you! (sorry if its confusing to read)
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Originally Posted by ep78 State whether the function f has an inverse. If f^-1 exsists, find a rule for f^-1(x) and show that f(f^-(x))= f^-1(f(x))=x 1. f(x)= 1/x thank you! (sorry if its confusing to read) if an inverse exists, this is how to find it you have y = 1/x for the inverse function, switch x and y and solve for y. then check that it has all the properties of an inverse function
wow..thats so easy..haha thank you!
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