what is the limit of (((-1)^n)*n)/(n+1) as n approaches infinity and how do you find it?
I think it is undefined because of the (-1)^n. You could rewrite
$\displaystyle (-1)^{n}\cdot n=n\cdot cos(n{\pi})+n\cdot i\cdot sin(n{\pi})$
You could try L'Hopital's rule.
Frankly, we could say it is -1....1
Thus undefined. Perhaps someone else has another idea.