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Thread: inflection related question

  1. August 18th 2008, 06:21 AM #1
    puneet
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    Question inflection related question

    If x=a is a point of inflection for y = f(x), then f'' (a) = 0?
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  2. August 18th 2008, 09:22 AM #2
    o_O
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    Yes, assuming that it is indeed twice differentiable there.
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