# Limit

• Feb 21st 2008, 01:57 AM
slevvio
Limit
Is it correct to say that $\lim_{M\to\infty}\frac{1}{2}tan^{-1}(M^2)=\frac{\pi}{4}$?
• Feb 21st 2008, 02:23 AM
mr fantastic
Quote:

Originally Posted by slevvio
Is it correct to say that $\lim_{M\to\infty}\frac{1}{2}tan^{-1}(M^2)=\frac{\pi}{4}$?

Yes.
• Feb 21st 2008, 04:40 AM
colby2152
Quote:

Originally Posted by slevvio
Is it correct to say that $\lim_{M\to\infty}\frac{1}{2}tan^{-1}(M^2)=\frac{\pi}{4}$?

Yes! You know that the inverse tangent function limits off at $\frac{\pi}{2}$, so you just use properties of limits and multiply it by one half.