Originally Posted by

**zacharyk123** My textbook states that the inverse of a bijection is also a bijection and is unique. I understand how to show that the inverse would be a bijection and intuitively I understand that it would be unique, but I'm not sure how to show that part.

My idea is to somehow say that if the inverse function is bijective and maps S -> T such that f-1(f(x))=x, then any other function that produces the same result must be the same function, but I can't quite figure out how to make this statement mathematically...

Thanks.