problem by squeeze theorem: 0<=sin^2(x)/x^4 <=1
Okay, so we know that sin^2 (x) is bounded between 0 and 1,
I believe the bottom denominator, x^4 continues on to infinity. it just keeps on going until infinity, so a number could be like 1, 1/16, 1/81 and so on ... right? thus getting closer to 0. So sin^2 (x)/x^4 = 0.
is this correct?
Looks good to me. You might want to set it out a bit more formally though. Start with something like:problem by squeeze theorem: 0<=sin^2(x)/x^4 <=1
Okay, so we know that sin^2 (x) is bounded between 0 and 1,
I believe the bottom denominator, x^4 continues on to infinity. it just keeps on going until infinity, so a number could be like 1, 1/16, 1/81 and so on ... right? thus getting closer to 0. So sin^2 (x)/x^4 = 0.
is this correct?
for all x, then take the limit for all 3 parts and conclude that the limit you are looking at is between 0 and 0, and therefore is 0.
I know what you mean. I often don't understand people when they don't say exactly what they mean, but this time I had the advantage of just having found out that squeeze theorem is another name for the sandwich rule.well, that makes sense. but before when we had 1 instead of 1/x^4, it didn't
Do you know where the term “squeeze” comes from?
In the U.S. the national sport has been “baseball”. (I think it is now gridiron football.)
But in baseball the “squeeze play” was very important: a ‘runner’ is caught between basemen. Can you understand why most of the world does not get this reference?