problem by squeeze theorem: 0<=sin^2(x)/x^4 <=1
Okay, so we know that sin^2 (x) is bounded between 0 and 1,
I believe the bottom denominator, x^4 continues on to infinity. it just keeps on going until infinity, so a number could be like 1, 1/16, 1/81 and so on ... right? thus getting closer to 0. So sin^2 (x)/x^4 = 0.
is this correct?