# Thread: A little question

1. ## A little question

Suppose f is a function such that: f(x)=0 if x is irrational and 0<x<1; f(x)=1/q if 0<x<1 is rational and in reduced form p/q, i.e. p and q have no common factor. How do I show that for any number a with 0<a<1, f approaches 0 at a?

2. ## Re: A little question

Please do not double post. See the original here.

-Dan