Suppose f is a function such that: f(x)=0 if x is irrational and 0<x<1; f(x)=1/q if 0<x<1 is rational and in reduced form p/q, i.e. p and q have no common factor. How do I show that for any number a with 0<a<1, f approaches 0 at a?

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- Aug 1st 2013, 05:43 PM #1

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- Aug 1st 2013, 06:02 PM #2