I've been staring at this problem for a while. I would appreciate a nudge in the right direction.

Determine k so that f(x)=x^3+kx-4/x-1 has a hole at x=1.

Here's what I've been able to figure out. In order for there to be a hole at x=1 there has to be a (x-1) in the numerator, right? But I'm not sure how to go about determining k to get (x-1) on top.