Can anyone help me confirm if I've got this one correct? Particularly the part at A, where I've defined (k + 2)! = (k + 1)!(k + 2).
Many thanks.
Q. (n + 1)! > 2n, for n
Attempt: Step 1: For n = 1...
(1 + 1)! = 2! = 2 & 21 = 2
Since 2 > 2, the statement is true for n = 1.
Step2: Assume the statement is true for n = k, i.e. assume (k + 1)! > 2k.
We must now show that the statement is true for n = k + 1,
i.e. ((k + 1) + 1)! > 2k+1 if (k + 2)! > 2k+1
A: (k + 2)! = (k + 1)!(k + 2) > (k + 1)2k...((k + 1)! > 2k...assumed)
If (k + 1)2k > 2k+1, then (k + 2)! > 2k+1
if (k + 1)2k > 2k+1
if (k + 1)2k - 2k+1 > 0
if 2k[(k + 1) - 2] > 0...which is true for k > 1
=> (k + 2)! > 2k+1
Therefore, the statement is true for n = k + 1, if true for n = k. Thus, the statement is true for all n > 2, n![]()


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