Need straightened out on some mathematical induction thoughts. OK I'm given an equation or series whose right side is supposed to equal its left side for all the positive numbers from 1 to infinity. Its easy enough to show that it works for x=1. Now the questionable part. I assume it is true for some x = k and write the equation using k for the variable symbol. Then I a let k become 1+k, substitute that new number into the same suspicious equation that works for k=1, perform some algebraic magic and low and behold the final equation "looks" exactly like the original one with all the k's now k+1. Just how is that a proof? The final equation looks as suspicious as the first one. Thanks, confused in Ohio.