Prove by induction: (Please see attachment). Have I worked this out correctly? Thank you.
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Originally Posted by GrigOrig99 Prove by induction: Do do you know BERNOULLI's INEQUALITY? If $\displaystyle x>-1$ then for each $\displaystyle n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$ this is true that $\displaystyle (1+x)^n\ge 1+nx$. The standard proof of that is by induction. Do you see a connection?
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