why does i exp(it)=1?

Printable View

- Sep 8th 2011, 06:21 AMblueyellowwhy does i exp(it)=1
why does i exp(it)=1?

- Sep 8th 2011, 06:22 AMalexmahoneRe: why does i exp(it)=1
- Sep 8th 2011, 06:28 AMblueyellowRe: why does i exp(it)=1
no I'm just trying to make sense of something someone wrote:

= |∫(t = 0 to π) (iRe^(it) dt) / (1 + R^4 e^(4it))|

≤ ∫(t = 0 to π) R dt / |1 + R^4 e^(4it)| - Sep 8th 2011, 06:31 AMalexmahoneRe: why does i exp(it)=1
- Sep 8th 2011, 06:52 AMblueyellowRe: why does i exp(it)=1
why?

I tired to figure it out but I can't. I have an exam retake tomorrow and I really can't think why |i exp(it)|=1

so I'd appreciate it if you help - Sep 8th 2011, 06:57 AMalexmahoneRe: why does i exp(it)=1
- Sep 8th 2011, 01:53 PMmr fantasticRe: why does i exp(it)=1